Your results on AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE 2012

1. Agricultural Production in West Africa can be improved by the following practices except the

• use of modern farm implements by farmers.
• legislation of communal land holding system.
• application of proven agricultural research findings.
• supply of improved seeds and livestock to farmers.

2. A limitation to the practice of shifting cultivation in modern day agriculture is

• prevalence of crop diseases.
• farm mechanization.
• population pressure.
• nomadic agriculture.

3. Government finances agriculture through the following means except

• reduction of tariffs on agricultural inputs.
• granting of subsidies to farmers.
• establishment of agricultural colleges.
• establishment of credit sources.

4. The following are factors that affect agricultural development in West Africa except

• transportation.
• rainfall.
• land tenure.
• pests and diseases.

5. Termites are useful in agriculture because they

• help control plant population.
• increase soil moisture.
• improve soil aeration.
• regufate soil temperature.

6. A fresh soil sample of mass 180 a had a mass of 120 g after oven-drying. Determine the percentage water content of the soil.

• 40.4%.
• 38.8%.
• 35.3%.
• 33.3%.

7. The earthworm is important to the farmer because it

• improves soil texture.
• destroys soil pathogens.
• checks soil erosion.
• improves soil structure.

8. The soil water that is readily available for absorption by plant roots is called

• capillary water.
• gravitational water.
• hygroscopic water.
• superfluous water.

9. Farmers practise mixed farming because they can

• easily secure loan to expand their farms.
• specialize in either the growing of crops or rearing of animals.
• use the manure from the animals to fertilize their crops.
• easily control pests and diseases on their farms.

10. Three soil samples labelled X, Y and Z were put separately in three funnels plugged with cotton wool and placed in graduated cylinders. An equal volume of water was poured on each soil sample. It was later observed that the amount of water that passed through soil sample X was more than that of Y and that of Y was more than that of Z.

Use this information to answer question 10.

Which of the following statements is a correct deduction from the information?

• X is clay, Y is sand and Z is loam
• X is sand, Y is clay and Z is loam
• X is loam, Y is sand and Z is clay
• X is sand, Y is loam and Z is clay

11. Which of the following factors should be considered in selecting cover crops? The cover crops must I. be easy to propagate. II. compete with the main crops. III. have roots capable of binding soils. IV. be slow growing.

• I and II only.
• II and III only.
• Iand III only.
• III and IV only.

12. Which of the following terms is not associated with surface irrigation?

• Tile.
• Basin.
• Dyke.
• Furrow.

13. Loss of nitrogen from the soil through the removal of oxygen from nitrates by bacteria is known as

• ammonification.
• dehydration.
• denitrification.
• nitrification.

14. Which of the following statements are advantages of mulching? It I. controls weeds, Il. conserves soil moisture. III. increases soil temperature. IV. reduces soil pH.

• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• II and IV only.
• III and IV only.

15. Determine the weight of potassium in a 50 kg NPK (20:20:10) bag of fertilizer.

• 5.0 kg.
• 7.0 kg.
• 10.0 kg.
• 20.0 kg.

16. The farm power which is most adaptable to farm operations in West Africa is

• animal power.
• wind power.
• human power.
• solar power.

17. If grains are not properly dried before storage they are likely to

• lose viability at a fast rate.
• remain dormant for a long time.
• synthesize carbohydrate during storage.
• germinate faster when planted in the field.

18. Which of the following combinations of activities gives the correct sequence of nursing seeds?

• tering of sown seeds II. Making drills with a dibber III. Covering seeds with palm fronds IV. Sowing seeds in drills
• II, IV, III and I.
• III, II, I and IV.
• III, IV, II and I.
• II, III, IV and I.

19. If the recommended spacing for a tree crop is 2.5 m by 4.0 m, how many seedlings are required to plant a 2-hectare farmland?

• 8,000 seedlings.
• 3,000 seedlings.
• 2,000 seedlings.
• 1,000 seedlings.

20. Which of the following processes are associated with rubber production?

Coagulation II. Fermentation III. Tapping

• I II and III.
• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• II and III only.

21. The following crops required staking except

• tomato.
• yam.
• pumpkin.
• guinea corn.

22. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Yams stored in barns should be inspected at least once a week to

• move rotten tubers. II. remove sprouts from the tubers. III. prevent mouldiness in the tubers.
• I only.
• II only.
• I, II and III.

23. The frequency of weed control on a tomato farm does not depend on

• rainfall.
• soil fertility.
• nearness to homestead.
• planting distance of crops.

24. Citrus is usually propagated by

• budding.
• layering.
• use of stem cuttings.
• use of bulbs.

25. The botanical name of groundnut is

• Vigna unguiculata.
• Arachis hypogaea.
• Phaseolus vulgaris.
• Glycine max.

26. Ornamental plants reduce noise pollution in the environment by

• scattering sound energy.
• reflecting sound waves.
• dispersing sound waves.
• absorbing sound energy.

27. Which of the following statements about the effects of diseases on crops are true? Reduction in I. quality of produce. II. photosynthetic ability. III. cost of production. IV. yield of the produce.

• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• I, II and III only.
• I, II and IV only.

28. Which of the following insect-pests possesses biting and chewing mouthparts?

• Grasshopper.
• Weevil.
• Aphid.
• Cotton stainer.

29. Striga spp. is a parasitic weed of

• cotton.
• orange.
• groundnut.
• sorghum.

30. The first activity to undertake before establishing a plantation is to

• survey the land.
• clear the land.
• prepare the seed beds.
• raise seedlings.

31. Fruits should be harvested at the appropriate time in order to

• prevent them from bruising.
• minimize their sugar content.
• reap increased fruiting.
• ensure good quality produce.

32. Which of the following crops are useful to the soap-making industry? I. Kolanut II. Coconut iii. Shea nut

• I and II only.
• I and II only.
• II and III only.
• I, II and III.

33. An advantage of rotational grazing is that

• less labour is required.
• there is greater potential for extending the grazing season.
• animals obtain all the different kinds of forage.
• animals can graze without danger of pest attack.

34. A sheep gained 20 kg of weight after consuming 60 kg of feed. Determine the feed conversion ratio.

• 1:2.
• 2:3.
• 3:1.
• 5:4.

35. A disease which affects poultry only is

• coccidiosis.
• newcastle.
• pox.
• helminthiasis.

36. Which of the following factors have negative influence on egg weight? I. High environmental temperature II. Poor lighting III. Comb size

• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• II and II only.
• I, II and III.

37. Fish ponds in arid areas should be deeper than those in the rain forests in order to

• ensure rapid growth of fish in arid areas.
• prevent loss of fish through extreme of temperatures.
• provide sufficient nutrients for the survival of fish.
• prevent exposure of fish to direct effect of the sun.

38. In sheep production, litter is put on the floor mainly to

• reduce the build-up of ectoparasites.
• facilitate cleaning of the house.
• reduce the incidence of pneumonia in lambs.
• help maintain suitable humidity in the house.

39. Determine the number of pigs that can be housed in a pigsty measuring 5.0 m by 4.0 m, if the floor space for a pig is 2.0 m2.

• 10.
• 11.
• 20.
• 40.

40. The type of weed control involved when tilapia feeds on aquatic weeds is

• biological.
• chemical.
• cultural.
• mechanical.

41. Which of the following statements about cross breeding in farm animals is false?

• It is a method used to produce new breeds of farm animals.
• The individuals used have all characters in common.
• It is a practice of improving poultry production.
• It can be used to introduce new genes in farm animals.

42. On which of the following criteria is pedigree selection in animal improvement based?

• Performance of the ancestors.
• Characteristics of the sire.
• Performance of the offspring.
• Characteristics of the dam.

43. Use the animal body parts listed below to answer questions 49, 50 and 51.
I. Cowper’s gland II. Jejunum III. Urethra
Which of the animal body parts listed above are related to the reproductive system?

• II and III only.
• I, II and III.
• I and II only.
• I and III only.

44. Which of the animal body parts listed above are found in female animals?

• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• II and III only.
• I, II and III.

45. Which of the animal body parts listed above secretes substances?

• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• II and III only.
• I, II and III.

46. Which of the following symptoms is typical of louse infestation in livestock?

• Itching of the body.
• Abdominal pain.
• Profuse salivation.
• Oozing out of blood.

47. Which of the following statements about herbivores are true? I. Non-ruminant herbivores have long ceaca II. Non-¬ruminant herbivores have complex stomach III. Ruminant herbivores chew the cud

• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• II and III only.
• I, II and III.

48. If an injured goat bleeds without the blood clotting, it is likely that the goat is deficient in

• vitamin D.
• vitamin K.
• vitamin E.
• vitamin C.

49. Determine the cost price of a farm equipment that has a salvage value of # 500,000.00, a useful life of 10 years and an annual depreciation of #400,000.00.

• #500,000.00.
• #900,000.00.
• #4,500,000.00.
• #5,500,000.00.

50. An example of long-term liability of a farmer is

• capital.
• interest.
• salary.
• taxes.

51. A farm business makes profits when

• total revenue equals total cost.
• total cost exceeds total revenue.
• total revenue exceeds total cost.
• total revenue equals average cost.

52. Marginal cost of production is defined as

• increase in fixed cost that results from increasing production by one unit.
• product of average variable cost and the number of units produced.
• average physical product multiplied by the variable cost.
• increase in total cost as output is increased by one unit.

53. The price of a fixed asset at the end of its useful life is called

• salvage value.
• depreciation value.
• annual depreciation.
• appreciation value.

54. Which of the following criteria are used in selecting agricultural extension teaching methods?

I. Time available for the programme II. The number of farmers involved III. The agricultural needs of the farmers

• I, II and III.
• I and II only.
• I and III only.
• II and III only.

55. Use the diagram below to answer questions 55 and 56

The diagram represents the

• nitrogen cycle
• krebs cycle
• water cycle
• carbon cycle

56. The part of the diagram labelled I is

• carbondioxide
• photosynthesis
• plant
• nitrification

57. How would the distance CE be calculated over the obstruction?

• CE = CD2 + EB2
• CE = CD2 + DE2
• CE = √CD2 + DE2
• CE =√DE2

58. The main method used to calculate the distance CE is called

• chain method
• right angled method
• similar triangle method
• double perpendicular method

59. What form of obstruction was encountered by the student?

• Tree
• River
• Hill
• Pond

60. Corms, Rhizomes and tubers are examples of

• underground stems
• underground roots
• modified leaves
• aerial stems

ANSWERS

1. B
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. C
6. D
7. A
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. C
12. A
13. C
14. A
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. A
19. D
20. C
21. D
22. –
23. C
24. A
25. C
26. C
27. D
28. A
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. C
33. B
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. B
38. C
39. A
40. A
41. C
42. A
43. D
44. A
45. A
46. A
47. B
48. B
49. C
50. C
51. C
52. D
53. A
54. D
55. C
56. C
57. C
58. B
59. B
60. A